• Guest_User@lemmy.worldEnglish
    0·
    8 months ago

    Not necessarily. It could just become a series of 1’s repeating forever. Nothing would require it to contain all strings of numbers.

    • diverging@lemmy.mlEnglish
      2·
      8 months ago

      It could just become a series of 1’s repeating forever

      If that happens in a number, then it is rational. Pi is not rational, so that will never happen in pi.

      • Jenztsch@feddit.deEnglish
        1·
        8 months ago

        Take a look at 0.101001000100001… This number is also non-repeating, but obviously doesn’t contain all numbers with finite digits.

        The property you’re looking for is called to be a normal number. Pi is assumed to be one, but it hasn’t yet been proven.

        However, in a sense this is an unremarkable property as almost all real numbers are normal. :)

        • ILikeBoobies@lemmy.caEnglish
          01·
          8 months ago

          but obviously doesn’t contain all numbers with finite digits.

          I was just claiming possibility because we haven’t calculated the infinite string